Monthly Archives: October 2017

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QUESTION 426
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about a device with this configuration are true? (Choose two)

A.    When a peer re-establishes a previous connection to the device.
CTS retains all existing SGT mapping entries for 3 minutes
B.    If a peer reconnects to the device within 120 seconds of terminating a CTS-SXP connection, the reconciliation timer starts
C.    If a peer re-establishes a connection to the device before the hold-down tier expires, the device retains the SGT mapping entries it learned during the previous connection for an additional 3 minutes
D.    It sets the internal hold-down timer of the device to 3 minutes
E.    When a peer establishes a new connection to the device, CTS retains all existing SGT mapping entries for 3 minutes
F.    If a peer reconnects to the device within 180 seconds of terminating a CTS-SXP connection, the reconciliation timer starts

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QUESTION 376
Which two statements about 802.1X components are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The access layer switch is the policy enforcement point.
B.    The certificates that are used in the client-server authentication process are stored on the access switch
C.    The RADIUS server is the policy enforcement point.
D.    The RADIUS server is the policy information point
E.    The RADIUS server is the policy decision point.
F.    An LDAP server can serve as the policy enforcement point.

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QUESTION 351
Which effect of the ip nhrp map multicast dynamic command is true?

A.    It configures a hub router to automatically add spoke routers to the multicast replication list of the hub
B.    It enables a GRE tunnel to operate without the IPsec peer or crypto ACLs.
C.    it enables a GRE tunnel to dynamically update the routing tables on the devices at each end of the tunnel
D.    It configures a hub router to reflect the routes it learns from a spoke back to other spokes through the same interface

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QUESTION 326
What is the first step in performing a risk assessment?

A.    Identifying critical services and network vulnerabilrties and determining the potential impact of their compromise or failure.
B.    Investigating reports of data theft or security breaches and assigning responsibility.
C.    Terminating any employee believed to be responsible for compromising security.
D.    Evaluating the effectiveness and appropriateness of the organization’s current risk-managemept activities.
E.     Establishing a security team to perform forensic examinations of previous known attacks.

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QUESTION 301
Which of the following two statements apply to EAP-FAST? (Choose two.)

A.    EAP-FAST is useful when a strong password policy cannot be enforced and an 802.1X EAP type that does not require digital certificates can be deployed.
B.    EAP-FAST was developed only for Cisco devices and is not compliant with 802.1X and 802.11i.
C.    EAP-FAST provides protection from authentication forging and packet forgery (replay attack).
D.    EAP-FAST is a client/client security architecture.

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QUESTION 276
Refer to the exhibit. Which effect of this command is true?

A.    The current public key of the router is deleted from the cache when the router reboots, and the router generates a new one.
B.    The CA revokes the public key certificate of the router.
C.    The public key of the remote peer is deleted from the router cache.
D.    The router immediately deletes its current public key from the cache and generates a new one.
E.    The router sends a request to the CA to delete the router certificate from its configuration.

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QUESTION 421
Which technology provides fast forwarding path failure detection times for all media types, encapsulations, technologies, and routing protocols?

A.    IP Dampening
B.    UDLD
C.    BFD
D.    NSF
E.    MPLS TE

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QUESTION 401
In IEEE 802.1ad deployments, which three represent valid port modes? (Choose three)

A.    NNI S-port
B.    NNI
C.    UNI S-port
D.    NNI C-port
E.    UNI C-port
F.    UNI T-port

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